2. Your company has a domain controller server that runs Windows Server 2008. The server is routinely backed up over the network from a dedicated backup server that runs Microsoft Windows Server 2003. Your manager asks you to prepare the domain controller for disaster recovery independent of the routine backup procedures. You attempt to back up the system state data for the domain controller, but you are unable to launch the Backup utility. You need to back up system state data from the Windows Server 2008 domain controller server. What should you do?
A. Add your user account to the local Backup Operators group.
B. Use the Server Manager feature to install the Windows Server Backup feature.
C. Use the Server Manager feature to install the Removable Storage Manager feature.
D. Deactivate the backup job that is configured to back up the Windows Server 2008 domain controller server on the Windows Server 2003 backup server.
Answer: B

3. Your company has an Active Directory forest that has six domains. The company has 15 sites. The company requires a new distributed application that uses a custom application directory partition named ResData for data replication. The application is installed on one member server in five sites. You need to configure the five member servers to receive the ResData application directory partition for data replication. What should you do?
A. Run the Dcpromo utility on the five member servers.
B. Run the Regsvr32 command on the five member servers.
C. Run the Wbadmin command on the five member servers.
D. Run the RacAgent utility on the five member servers.
Answer: A

4. Your company has an Active Directory forest. The company requires a new distributed application that uses a custom application directory partition named ResData. You need to implement the ResData application directory partition for data replication. Which are the two utilities that you can run to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Dnscmd
B. Ntdsutil
C. Wbadmin
D. RacAgent
E. Regsvr32
Answer: A,B

5. Your company has an Active Directory forest as shown in the following table.
There are 10 domain controllers in each domain. You use the Remote Desktop utility from your workstation in the ma.corp.contoso.com domain.
You are modifying the folder permissions on a file server named FS1 in the ca.corp.contoso.com domain.
When you use the Microsoft Windows Explorer utility to access the Security tab of the folders, you discover that some entries start with S-1-5-21 and no account name is listed.
You need to ensure that the Security tab of the folders display the account names.
What should you do?
A. Configure the FS1 server as a Global Catalog server.
B. Modify the schema to enable replication of the friendlynames attribute to the Global Catalog.
C. Move the RID Master role in the ma.corp.contoso.com domain to a domain controller that does not hold the Global Catalog.
D. Move the Infrastructure Master role in the ma.corp.contoso.com domain to a domain controller that does not contain the Global Catalog.
Answer: D

6. Your company has three Active Directory domains in a single forest. You install a new Active DirectoryCenabled application. The application extends the Active Directory schema with new user attributes. You discover a significant increase in the Active Directory replication traffic to the Global Catalogs after the new application is installed. You need to prevent the new attributes from being replicated to the Global Catalogs. What should you do?
A. Uninstall the application.
B. Delete the new attributes from the Active Directory schema.
C. Change replication interval to 9990 for the DEFAULTIPSITELINK object.
D. Modify the properties in the Active Directory schema for the new attributes.
Answer: D

7. Your company
70-649 dumps has a branch office that is configured as a separate Active Directory site. The site has an Active Directory domain controller. The Active Directory site requires a local Global Catalog server to support a new application. You need to configure the domain controller in the branch office as a Global Catalog server. Which tool should you use?
A. The Dcpromo.exe utility
B. The Computer Management console
C. The Active Directory Domains and Trusts console
D. The Active Directory Sites and Services console
E. The Server Manager console
Answer: D

8. Your company, Contoso, Ltd., has an Active Directory forest that has 12 domains. The company has 24 offices. One of the branch offices has 40 users. The users are members of a universal group that grants them access to resources in all the 24 offices. The branch office has a domain controller named Contoso17. The branch office is connected to the corporate network by a 128-Kbps WAN connection. The WAN connection is available only during business hours. Users report that they are unable to log on to the network after business hours. You need to enable user logons at any time of the day. What should you do?
A. Configure Contoso17 as a bridgehead server for the branch office site.
B. Enable universal group membership caching for the branch office site.
C. Decrease the replication interval on the site link that connects the branch office to the corporate network.
D. Increase the replication interval on the site link that connects the branch office to the corporate network.
E. Deploy a read-only domain controller (RODC) at the branch office site.
Answer: B

9. Your company has a main office and five branch offices. The Active Directory forest of the company is configured as a single domain that has four sites. The domain has a server with Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) installed and configured as an Enterprise Root Certificate Authority (CA). The Enterprise Root CA certificate is installed on all computers in the domain. You install a new application on all computers. The company security policy requires that the application must use only Lightweight Directory Access Protocol over Secure Sockets Layer (LDAPS). You discover that the application is unable to connect to a global catalog server in a remote site. You need to test the LDAPS connection between the client computer and the global catalog server in the remote site. What should you do?
A. Run the Ldp.exe tool.
B. Run the Repadmin.exe tool.
C. Run the Certification Authority console.
D. Run the Active Directory Sites and Services console.
Answer: A

10. You have a
70-649 study guide Windows server core installation of Windows Server 2008. The installation was completed by using the default settings. You plan to make the server accessible to the domain users. You need to change the server name. You also need to join the server to the domain. Which tool should you run?
A. Netsh.exe
B. Netdom.exe
C. Ocsetup.exe
D. Oclist.exe
Answer: B

2. View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the MARKS_DETAILS and MARKStables.

Which is the best method to load data from the MARKS_DETAILStable to the MARKStable?
A. Pivoting INSERT
B. Unconditional INSERT
C. Conditional ALL INSERT
D. Conditional FIRST INSERT
Answer: A

3. Which three statements are true regarding single-row functions? (Choose three.)
A. They can accept only one argument.
B. They can be nested up to only two levels.
C. They can return multiple values of more than one data type.
D. They can be used in SELECT, WHERE, and ORDER BY clauses.
E. They can modify the data type of the argument that is referenced.
F. They can accept a column name, expression, variable name, or a user-supplied constant as arguments.
Answer: D, E, F

4. Which two statements are true regarding operators used with subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. The NOT IN operator is equivalent to IS NULL.
B. The <ANY operator means less than the maximum.
C. =ANY and =ALL operators have the same functionality.
D. The IN operator cannot be used in single-row subqueries.
E. The NOT operator can be used with IN, ANY and ALL operators.
Answer: B, E

5. Which two statements are true regarding views? (Choose two.)
A. A simple view in which column aliases have been used cannot be updated.
B. A subquery used in a complex view definition cannot contain group functions or joins.
C. Rows cannot be deleted through a view if the view definition contains the DISTINCT keyword.
D. Rows added through a view are deleted from the table automatically when the view is dropped.
E. The OR REPLACE option is used to change the definition of an existing view without dropping and re-creating it.
F. The WITH CHECK OPTION constraint can be used in a view definition to restrict the columns displayed through the view.
Answer: C, E

6. Which two statements are true about sequences created in a single instance database? (Choose two.)
A. The numbers generated by a sequence can be used only for one table.
B. DELETE would remove a sequence from the database.
C. CURRVAL is used to refer to the last sequence number that has been generated.
D. When the MAXVALUE limit for a sequence is reached, you can increase the MAXVALUE limit by using the ALTER SEQUENCE statement.
E. When a database instance shuts down abnormally, the sequence numbers that have been cached but not used would b
1Z0-047 dumps e available once again when the database instance is restarted.
Answer: C, D

7. Which statements are correct regarding indexes? (Choose all that apply.)
A. When a table is dropped, the corresponding indexes are automatically dropped.
B. For each DML operation performed, the corresponding indexes are automatically updated.
C. Indexes should be created on columns that are frequently referenced as part of an expression.
D. A non-deferrable PRIMARY KEY or UNIQUE KEY constraint in a table automatically creates a unique index.
Answer: A, B, D

8. The ORDERS table belongs to the user OE. OE has granted the SELECT privilege on the ORDERS table to the user HR.
Which statement would create a synonym ORD so that HR can execute the following query successfully? SELECT * FROM ord;
A. CREATE SYNONYM ord FOR orders; This command is issued by OE.
B. CREATE PUBLIC SYNONYM ord FOR orders; This command is issued by OE.
C. CREATE SYNONYM ord FOR oe.orders; This command is issued by the database administrator.
D. CREATE PUBLIC SYNONYM ord FOR oe.orders; This command is issued by the database administrator.
Answer: D

9. Which statement is true regarding synonyms?
A. Synonyms can be created for tables but not views.
B. Synonyms are used to reference only those tables that are owned by another user.
C. A public synonym and a private synonym can exist with the same name for the same table.
D. The DROP SYNONYM statement removes the synonym, and the status of the table on which the synonym has been created becomes invalid.
Answer: C

10. ORD is a private synonym for the OE. ORDERS table. The user OE issues the following command:
DROP SYNONYM ord;
Which statement is true
1Z0-047 study guide regarding the above SQL statement?
A. Only the synonym would be dropped.
B. The synonym would be dropped and the corresponding table would become invalid.
C. The synonym would be dropped and the packages referring to the synonym would be dropped.
D. The synonym would be dropped and any PUBLIC synonym with the same name becomes invalid.
Answer: A

2. The database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode and the FORMAT option is not configured in RMAN for disk backups. You configured the flash recovery area location and size by using the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST and DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST_SIZE initialization parameters.
Which statement is correct in this scenario?
A. If no other destination is configured for recovery files, then RMAN places the control file autobackups in the flash recovery area by default.
B. If any local destinations for LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_n are set, then archived redo logs are stored in these destinations as well as in the flash recovery area.
C. If the flash recovery area location is configured using the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST initialization parameter, then the RMAN backup of Oracle managed datafiles (OMF) only will go to the flash recovery area by default.
D. If the FORMAT option to the RMAN BACKUP command is specified, then RMAN creates backup pieces and
image copies in the flash recovery area with names in the Oracle Managed Files (OMF) format.
Answer: A

3. You defined the Recovery Manager (RMAN) retention policy to recovery window of 7 days by executing the following command:
RMAN> CONFIGURE RETENTION POLICY TO RECOVERY WINDOW OF 7 DAYS; When a backup is performed, what would be the status of this backup after seven days?
A. The backup would be marked as invalid.
B. The backup would be marked as obsolete.
C. The backup would be removed from the media.
D. The backup would be removed from the RMAN repository.
Answer: B

4. You set the recovery window to seven days and the backup optimization to ON using the CONFIGURE command of Recovery Manager (RMAN). The most recent backup of the TOOLS tablespace to disk was taken on January 3. The TOOLS tablespace is read­only. On February 21, when you execute a command
to back up all the tablespaces to disk, you find that RMAN backs up the TOOLS tablespace also, even though the contents of the tablespace have not changed after the backup on January 3. Because there are no changes made to the TOOLS tablespace, you decide that the tablespace should not be backed up by RMAN. What can you to do skip backing up the TOOLS tablespace without changing the current backup optimization setting?
A. configure a default device for RMAN backups
B. temporarily disable the retention policy for RMAN backups
C. configure automatic channel allocation for RMAN backups
D. use the CONFIGURE command to reconfigure the recovery window to 60 days
Answer: B

5. In Recovery Manager (RMAN), you have set control file autobackup to ON by using the following command:
CONFIGURE CONTROLFILE AUTOBACKUP ON;
Which two events would cause the control file to be backed up automatically? (Choose two.)
A. a tablespace is taken offline
B. the database instance is restarted
C. a new data file is added to an existing tablespace
D. a successful backup is recorded in the RMAN repository
E. the RMAN connection is disconnected from the target database
Answer: C, D

6. In the parameter file of your production database, the CONTROL_FILE_RECORD_KEEP_TIME parameter is set to 31. What would be the impact of this setting on the backup that is being performed by using Recovery Manager (RMAN)?
A. The backup would be retained on the media for 31 days.
B. The backup would be maintained in the recovery catalog for 31 days.
C. The backup metadata would be retained in the control file for 31 days.
D. The backup metadata would be maintained in the recovery catalog for 31 days.
E. Automatic backups of the control file will be retained in the flash recovery area for 31 days.
Answer: C

7. You observe that the senior database administrator always uses the following command when connecting to Recovery Manager (RMAN), and then starts executing commands to backup the database files:
$ rman target /
What would be the effect of this command?
A. RMAN would use the current operating system location to place the backup.
B. RMAN would use the control file of the target database to maintain the backup.
C. RMAN would use the recovery catalog of the target database to maintain the backup.
D. RMAN would use the control file of the target database to maintain the backup metadata.
E. RMAN would use the recovery catalog of the target database to maintain the backup metadata.
Answer: D

8. You execute the following command to perform a backup by using Recovery Manager (RMAN): RMAN> run
{allocate channel c1 type sbt;
backup datafile 1;
\
}
The command errors out. A part of the error message is as follows: RMAN­03009: failure of allocate command on c1 channel
ORA­19554: error allocating device, device type: SBT_TAPE, device name: What could explain why the statement failed?
A. sbt is not a valid device type.
B. Media Management Library was not loaded.
C. The sbt device cannot be used for data file backups.
D. No path was defined in the ALLOCATE CHANNEL command.
E. The channel is currently being used by another RMAN session.
Answer: B

9. View the Exhibit.
You executed the following command to perform a backup of the USERS tablespace: BACKUP TABLESPACE USERS;
Which three types of files are backed up? (Choose three.)
A. password file
B. online redo log files
C. the current control file
D. archived redo log files
E. the current server parameter file
F. all the data files belonging to the USERS tablespace
G. data files belonging to the USERS tablespace and all the default tablespaces
Answer: C, E, F

10. You executed the following command in Recovery Manager (RMAN) to perform a backup of the
DETTBS tablespace:
RMAN> BACKUP TABLESPACE DETTBS;
Under which conditions would this command execute successfully? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The database is in NOMOUNT state.
B. The database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is online.
C. The database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is offline.
D. The database is in NOARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is online.
E. The database is in NOARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is offline.
Answer: B, C, E

11. Your database is functioning in NOARCHIVELOG mode. Your database contains 15 tablespaces. You want to use Recovery Manager (RMAN) to perform backups.
Which two backups would you be able to perform when the database is being accessed by users?
(Choose two.)
A. backup of offline tablespaces
B. backup of read­only tablespaces
C. backup of system­critical tablespaces
D. backup of online, locally managed tablespaces
E. backup of read/write dictionary­managed tablespaces
Answer: A, B

12. Which two statements regarding compressed backups in Recovery Manager (RMAN) are true? (Choose two.)
A. Backup compression is disabled by default.
B. Backup compression applies to only backup sets.
C. Backup compression applies to only image copies.
D. Backup compression cannot be enabled using the CONFIGURE command.
E. Backup compression can be used with both backup sets and image copies.
F. Backup compression works only if the COMPATIBILITY parameter is set to 9.0.0.0 or higher.
Answer: A, B

13. What purpose would you achieve by enabling the block change tracking feature?
A. eliminate the necessity for backups
B. perform optimized image copy backups
C. perform optimized incremental backups
D. enable checkpoint (CKPT) to perform checkpointing at every block change
E. enable database writer (DBWn) to write changed blocks to data files faster
Answer: C

14. You are managing a database for which incremental backups can be very time consuming. In order to perform optimized incremental backups you enable the block change tracking feature.
How would you instruct RMAN to use the block change tracking feature when performing incremental backups?
A. You need to mention it with every BACKUP command.
B. You need to configure it using the CONFIGURE command.
C. The block change tracking feature is used automatically by RMAN.
D. You need to set the necessary initialization parameters to direct RMAN to use the feature.
Answer: C

15. You executed the following command in Recovery Manager (RMAN) against your Oracle 10g database:
RMAN> REPORT NEED BACKUP days 3; What would be the output of this command?
A. a list of files that require a backup within three days
B. a list of files that have not been backed up for three days
C. a list of files that RMAN recommends be backed up only once in every three days, based on low volatility
D. a list of files for which a backup has already been performed and may need a backup after three days
Answer: B

16. The backup retention policy is configured as RECOVERY WINDOW 2. You executed the following command in Recovery Manager (RMAN) against your database:
RMAN> REPORT OBSOLETE; What would you see in the output?
A. a list of all the expired backups and copies
B. a list of all those files that have been deleted in the last two days
C. a list of all those files that have been recovered within the last two days
D. a list of backups and copies that are outside the range covered by the current retention policy
Answer: D

17. Last night, a media failure caused the loss of a temporary file that belongs to your database. Which two things may happen this morning when you try to open your database? (Choose two.)
A. The database opens normally.
B. The database prompts for a database recovery.
C. The database writer writes to a trace file, indicating that the temporary file is not found.
D. The database get
1Z0-043 dumps mounted and throws an error indicating that the temporary file requires recovery.
Answer: A, C

18. A user executes a query on the EMP table, which contains thousands of rows, to get details about employees in one of the departments. The user receives the following error:
SQL> SELECT ename FROM emp WHERE deptno=10 ORDER BY sal; SELECT ename FROM emp WHERE deptno=10 ORDER BY sal
*
ERROR at line 1:
ORA­01157: cannot identify/lock data file 201 ­ see DBWR trace file ORA­01110: data file 201: ‘/u01/app/oracle/oradata/orcl/temp01.dbf’ What is a possible reason?
A. The tempfile belonging to the default temporary tablespace is missing.
B. The database is opened in restricted mode, so queries are not allowed.
C. The default temporary tablespace required to execute the query is offline.
D. The default temporary tablespace required to execute the query is dropped.
E. The default temporary tablespace required to execute the query is read­only.
Answer: A

19.You are working on a database, where you have three redo log groups. When the database is down for
a backup, an operating system (OS) user deletes all the redo log files in a group. What will happen when you open your database?
A. The instance starts and the database opens because two redo log groups still exist.
B. Before the instance starts, you receive an error about the missing redo log files of a group.
C. The instance starts and the database opens with an error message written to the alert log file.
D. The instance starts and the database opens, but every attempt to write to redo log files fails with an error.
E. The instance starts, the database is mounted, but efforts to open the database fail, and an error about the missing redo log group is displayed.
Answer: E

20.A media failure has occurred. This has resulted in all the members of the next log group being rendered inaccessible to the log writer process (LGWR) at a log switch. How does this failure affect the operational database?
A. The database re­creates the missing redo log files automatically.
B. The database continues to function normally with the existing files.
C. The database allows only queries; no other statements are allowed.
D. The database returns an error and the database instance shuts down.
E. The user sessions that generate redo logs are terminated automatically.
Answer: D

21.A redo log file is corrupted while the database is open; as a consequence, database operations are stopped because archiving cannot continue.What would you do to solve the problem?
A. clear the redo log group
B. perform redo log file import
C. perform an incomplete recovery
D. perform a redo log recovery using Recovery Manager (RMAN)
E. shut down the database and open the database in the NOARCHIVELOG mode
Answer: A

22.You lost a data file that belongs to an index tablespace in your database, which operates in
ARCHIVELOG mode. Loss of the data file resulted in increased response time on your queries.Which two options would you use to solve this problem? (Choose two.)
A. restore the lost data file from the backup, and then flash back the database
B. restore the data file pertaining to index tablespace, and then recover the tablespace
C. restore all the data files, and then perform an incomplete recovery to get the tablespace back
D. restore all the data files, and then perform an incomplete recovery using the backup control file
E. drop and re­create the index tablespace, and then re­create all of the indexes in that tablespace
Answer: B, E

23.You lost the index tablespace in your database. You are not able to use tablespace point­in­time recovery on the index tablespace. What could be the reason for this?
A. The index tablespace contains bitmap indexes.
B. The index tablespace contains more than one data file.
C. The index tablespace supports only complete recovery.
D. The index tablespace is not a dictionary­managed tablespace.
E. There is a dependency relationship between a table and its indexes.
Answer: E

24.You lost the index tablespace in your database. You decided to re­create the index tablespace and the indexes in the tablespace.What methods can you use to re­create the indexes? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Data Pump
B. SQL scripts
C. SQL*Loader
D. Flashback database
E. Recovery Manager (RMAN) script
Answer: A, B

25.You lost the PRODSTD tablespace, which was read­only. The tablespace was read­only when the last backup was taken. How would you recover the tablespace?
A. restore the tablespace from the backup
B. restore the tablespace from the backup, and then perform an incomplete recovery
C. restore the tablespace from the backup, and then apply all the redo information
D. restore all the data files in the database, and then perform an incomplete recovery
Answer: A

26.One of the tablespaces is read­only in your database. The loss of all control files forced you to re­create the control file.Which operation do you need to perform after re­creating the control file and opening the database?
A. drop and re­create the read­only tablespaces
B. rename the read­only data files to their correct file names
C. change the tablespace status from read/write to read­only
D. re­create the read­only tablespace because it is automatically removed
Answer: B

27.You have a read­only tablespace on read­only media. You want to perform a media recovery on the existing data files, but using a backup control file. The backup control file indicates that the status of the read­only tablespace was read/write when the control file was backed up.What should you consider?
A. drop the read­only tablespace and re­create the tablespace after recovery
B. take data files from the read­only tablespace offline before performing a recovery
C. perform a recovery; status of the tablespace in control file will be changed automatically
D. recovery using backup control file is not possible, so restore all the files from the last full database backup, and
then open the database
Answer: B

28.The loss of the control file forced you to re­create the control file. After re­creating it and opening the database, you find that some of the data files are named as MISSINGnnnnn, where nnnnn is a five­digit number starting with 0.What could be the possible reason?
A. These are the data files that are corrupted.
B. There is no SYSAUX tablespace in your database
C. There is a read­only tablespace in your database.
D. These are the data files that cannot be recovered.
Answer: C

29.You executed the following command in Recovery Manager (RMAN):RMAN> RESTORE CONTROLFILE;
Which operation must you perform before this command is executed?
A. back up the control file to trace
B. bring database to the MOUNT state
C. open a connection to the RMAN recovery catalog, which contains the RMAN metadata for the target database
D. set the database ID (DBID), but only if the DB_NAME parameter associated with the target database is unique in the recovery catalog
Answer: C

30.You are connected t
1Z0-043 study guide Recovery Manager (RMAN) without a recovery catalog. There is no copy of the control file available. You want to restore the control file from an autobackup. To retrieve the autobackup, you need the database ID (DBID).In which two sources would you find the DBID? (Choose two.)
A. the trace file
B. the alert log file
C. an RMAN session log file
D. the server parameter file
E. the formatted name of a control file autobackup
Answer: C, E

2. You are in the middle of a transaction and very crucial data has been modified. Because of a hardware failure, the instance has shut down before synchronizing all the database files.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. On startup, SMON coordinates instance recovery.
B. On startup, CKPT coordinates instance recovery.
C. On startup, use RMAN to perform instance recovery.
D. Uncommitted changes will be rolled back after the database is opened.
E. On startup, perform media recovery and then instance recovery.
F. On startup, all the files will be synchronized and you get both committed and uncommitted data.
Answer: A, D

3. You are using the backup scheduler in Enterprise Manager (EM) to schedule a backup of your database.
Which type of script does the backup scheduler generate?
A. SQL script
B. PL/SQL script
C. Operating System (OS) script
D. Enterprise Manager (EM) script
E. Recovery Manager (RMAN) script
Answer: E

4. You executed the following command to export the EMPLOYEES table from a remote machine:
$ EXPDP hr/hr@data.us.oracle.com
DUMPFILE=my_dir:exp_hr.log
LOGFILE=data_pump_dir:log_hr.log
TABLES=employees
What would be the outcome of this command?
A. The command would execute successfully and the export dump file would be created in the destination of the directory object MY_DIR.
B. The command would execute successfully. But log file would not be created as DATA_PUMP_DIR directory is only accessible to user with SYSDBA privilege.
C. The command fails with an error because DATA_PUMP_DIR directory have higher precedence over the per-file directory.
D. The command fails with an error because no absolute path is specified for log file and dumpfile.
Answer: A

5. Which step do you need to perform to enable a user with the SYSDBA privilege to log in as SYSDBA in iSQL*Plus?
A. The user must be granted the database administrator (DBA) privilege.
B. The user must b
1Z0-042 dumps e listed in the password file for the authentication.
C. No special setup is needed for the user to connect as SYSDBA in iSQL*Plus.
D. Set up a user in the Oracle Application Server Containers for J2EE (OC4J) user manager, and grant the webDba role to the user.
Answer: D

6. Which two statements regarding the LOGGING clause of the CREATE TABLESPACE. .. statement are correct? (Choose two.)
A. This clause is not valid for a temporary or undo tablespace.
B. If the tablespace is in the NOLOGGING mode, no operation on the tablespace will generate redo.
C. The tablespace will be in the NOLOGGING mode by default, if not specified while creating a tablespace.
D. The tablespace-level logging attribute can be overridden by logging specifications at the table, index, materialized view, materialized view log, and partition levels.
Answer: A, D

7. Which two statements are true about the primary key constraint in a table? (Choose two.)
A. It is not possible to disable the primary key constraint.
B. It is possible to have more than one primary key constraint in a single table.
C. The primary key constraint can be referred by only one foreign key constraint.
D. The primary key constraint can be imposed by combining more than one column.
E. The non-deferrable primary key constraint creates an unique index on the primary key column if it is not already indexed.
Answer: D, E

8. You want the user APP_DBA to administer the Oracle database from a remote machine. APP_DBA is granted the SYSDBA privilege to perform administrative tasks on the database.
Which file is used by the Oracle database server to authenticate APP_DBA?
A. control file
B. password file
C. listener controller file
D. control file and password file
Answer: B

9. Which three statements are true regarding the logical structure of the Oracle database? (Choose three.)
A. Each segment contains one or more extents.
B. Multiple tablespaces can share single data file.
C. A data block is the smallest unit of I/O for data files.
D. It is possible to have tablespaces of different block sizes in a database.
E. Each data block in the database always corresponds to one OS block.
Answer: A, C, D

10. Which is the memory
1Z0-042 study guide
area that is created when a dedicated server process is started, and contains data and control information for that server process?
A. SGA
B. PGA
C. Shared Pool
D. Streams Pool
Answer: B

Two features to RealExams 640-801 Testing Engine is Practice and Virtual modes:

1. Practice mode allows you to take the exam with answers at the ready.
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Commitment to Your Success:

At RealExams we are committed
Real Exam Questions to you ongoing success. Our exams and questions are constantly being updated and compared to industry standards.

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Q: 2 Which management suite delivers core management functionality for the HP BladeSystem solution, including server deployment, health monitoring, performance monitoring, vulnerability scanning and patch management?
A. HP Storage Essentials
B. HP Operations Software
C. Insight Control Environment
D. HP Systems Insight Manager
Answer: C

Q: 3 Which ProLiant Essentials Value Pack is an integrated power monitoring and management application that provides centralized monitoring and control of datacenter power consumption and thermal output?
A. Insight Power Manager
B. HP Rack and Power Manager
C. Performance Management Pack
D. Vulnerability and Patch Management Pack
Answer: A

Q: 4 Your customer wants to replace an existing c3000 Enclosure with a c7000 Enclosure. Which components from the c3000 Enclosure can be reused in the c7000 Enclosure? (Select three.)
A. fans
B. power supplies
C. interconnect modules
D. server and storage blades
E. Onboard Administrator module
Answer: A, C, D

Q: 5 Which additional features are enabled when an iLO 2 Select Pack license is applied to an iLO 2 card on a server blade? (Select three.)
A. virtual power
B. scripted Virtual Media
C. shared remote console
D. integrated remote console
E. Power Regulator for ProLiant
F. high-performance, virtual KVM console
Answer: B, C, E

Q: 6 For enterprise deployment and management, customers can configure the HP Onboard Administrator to accept secured, single sign-on (SSO) from HP Systems Insight Manager.
What is used for this process?
A. SSL 128-bit key
B. WBEM providers
C. trusted certificate
D. SNMP community strings
Answer: C

Q: 7 Which command lists, creates, removes and executes HP SIM tasks from the command line interface?
A. mxtask
B. simtask
C. simmgnt
D. axsched
Answer: A

Q: 8 You want to
HP0-S17 dumps discover and visualize the SAN topology and gather information about the connected hosts. Which application is appropriate?
A. SAN Loader tool
B. HP Command View
C. HP Storage Essentials
D. HP Data Protector Express
Answer: C

Q: 9 Which Rapid Deployment Pack component consists of software optimizations for HP servers, including the HP scripting toolkits and support packs?
A. PXE Server
B. Integrity Integration Module
C. Altiris Deployment Solution
D. Microsoft Windows Automation Toolkit
Answer: B

Q: 10 An administrator is configuring a new task for automatic event handling.
Which actions can be taken when events are received? (Select two.)
A. forward the event
B. change the event format
C. run a custom command
D. launch an external event handler
E. map the appropriate logs to events
Answer: A, C

Q: 11 Which plug-in enhances HP SIM event monitoring capabilities by sending automatic hardware event notification securely to HP; including entitlement, acknowledgement, and status returns?
A. Performance Management Pack
B. Service Essentials Remote Support Pack
C. Vulnerability and Patch Management Pack
D. Extensions for HP SIM on Microsoft Windows
Answer: B

Q: 12 Which methods does HP Dynamic Smart Cooling use to reduce data center power and cooling requirements? (Select three.)
A. sensors to govern air flow
B. sensors to govern temperature
C. dynamically adjusts air flow and temperature to meet cooling requirements
D. hybrid model that combines local and centralized cooling in a single system
E. policy-based power management to control processor core frequency and voltage based on application demand
F. adaptive management of cooling sensors within the BladeSystem c7000 Enclosure to meet cooling requirements
Answer: A, B, C

Q: 13 You are working at the customer site and need to connect to the Onboard Administrator (OA) on their c-Class enclosure, but the customer does not allow you to connect to their network. How can you access the OA in this situation?
A. Connect your laptop to the uplink port on the enclosure.
B. Use iLO 2 on any of the blades to get access to the OA.
C. Disconnect the customer’s Ethernet cable from the OA and connect your laptop to it.
D. Connect your laptop to any open port on the GbE2c switch connected to the enclosure.
Answer: A

Q: 14 Which standard ProLiant Essentials packages are automatically installed by the Insight Control Environment for HP BladeSystem? (Select three.)
A. Rapid Deployment Pack
B. HP Systems Insight Manager
C. iLO 2 Power Management Pack
D. Virtual Connect Enterprise Edition
E. Virtual Machine Management Pack
F. Server Migration Pack Universal Edition
Answer: A, B, E

Q: 15 Your custome
HP0-S17 study guide r has two servers with VMware installed. On each VMware server they have 12 virtual machines. They want to manage all virtual machines from HP SIM. How many Virtual Machine Management Pack licenses are required to manage all virtual machines on both VMware hosts?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 12
D. 24
Answer: A

Q: 2 Which HP
HP0-S16 Support Service for HP BladeSystem includes Remote Diagnostic and Change Management?
A. Support Plus
B. Critical Service
C. Support Plus 24
D. Proactive Essentials
E. Software Technical Support
Answer: B

Q: 3 What is included in the HP Enhanced Network and Startup Service for BladeSystem switches? (Select three.)
A. delivery of service at a mutually scheduled time
B. installation and startup by an HP technical specialist
C. installation and startup of Rapid Deployment Pack (RDP)
D. installation and startup of Virtual Machine Management Pack (VMM)
E. configuration and testing of BladeSystem Ethernet interconnect switches
Answer: A, B, E

Q: 4 Which HP Support Service for HP BladeSystem includes onsite consultation and reactive support planning?
A. Support Plus
B. Critical Service
C. Support Plus 24
D. Software Support
E. Software Technical Support
Answer: B

Q: 5 What are benefits of the HP Server Migration Pack – Physical to ProLiant Edition? (Select two.)
A. Identical performance is guaranteed between old and new servers.
B. Operating systems can be automatically upgraded during the migration.
C. Data can be migrated between servers with different drive technologies.
D. 32-bit servers can be upgraded to, and take advantage of, 64-bit hardware.
E. Driver compatibility is maintained automatically throughout the migration process.
Answer: C, E

Q: 6 Which ProLiant BL supports the AMD Opteron processor? (Select two.)
A. BL460c
B. BL465c
C. BL480c
D. BL685c
E. BL860c
F. BL2x220c
Answer: B, D

Q: 7 Click the Exhibit button.

What is the recommended placement when using two power supplies in a single-phase c7000 Enclosure? (Select two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
Answer: A, D

Q: 8 How many Onboard Administrators are needed to provide a complete management view of three linked enclosures?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
Answer: A

Q: 9 Which HP Systems Insight Manager plug-in allows you to view BladeSystem properties within HP SIM?
A. HP SUM
B. RDP Web Console
C. Onboard Administrator
D. Service Control Manager
E. BladeSystem Integrated Manager
Answer: E

Q: 10 What is improved by installing blanking panels in a 42U rack?
A. air flow
B. rack stability
C. rack security
D. cable management
Answer: A

Q: 11 How ma
HP0-S16 dumps y licenses are needed to enable the HP BladeSystem Integrated Manager?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 1 per enclosure
D. 1 per server blade
Answer: A

Q: 12 In a standard configuration, which component requires operator intervention to switch over to the redundant unit in a c-Class BladeSystem enclosure?
A. fan modules
B. backplane switch
C. power supply modules
D. Onboard Administrator modules
Answer: D

Q: 13 A customer has two BL460c Server Blades in a c-Class Enclosure. They want to implement a shared storage solution for this blade environment. Which StorageWorks solution should you recommend?
A. SB40c
B. MSA20
C. MSA60
D. MSA2000
Answer: D

Q: 14 You are configuring a firewall setting that enables the Rapid Deployment Pack to communicate with the managed nodes using multicasting. Which TCP port is used by the Altiris Deployment Servers connecting to the database?
A. 21
B. 401
C. 8000
D. 50000
Answer: B

Q: 15 HP Integrity Essentials includes support for which operating systems? (Select three.)
A. Linux
B. OS/2
C. HP-UX 11i
D. HP OpenVMS
E. Windows 2000
F. Novell NetWare 6
Answer: A, C, D

Q: 16 Which option is valid when running the First Time Wizard in HP SIM?
A. Configure email options in the Email options page.
B. Configure access rights in the SNMP options page.
C. Configure certificate security in the WBEM options page.
D. Configure the discovery options page to select manageable routers.
Answer: A

Q: 17 Which device needs to be discovered for c-Class server blades and interconnect modules to appear in HP BladeSystem Integrated Manager tree or picture view?
A. Management Module
B. Onboard Administrator
C. HP Automation Engine
D. Integrated Display Module
Answer: B

Q: 18 A customer needs assistance with the installation and configuration of an SB40c Storage Blade. Which service offering should they purchase?
A. HW Installation
B. HW Installation for Enclosure and Server Blades
C. HP BladeSystem Enhanced Network Installation and Startup
D. HP Installation & Startup Service for HP BladeSystem Infrastructure
Answer: A

Q: 19 Click the Exhibit button.

Which configuration combinations are used in the c7000 Enclosure shown in the exhibit? (Select two.)
A. Dynamic Power Enabled
B. Dynamic Power Disabled
C. N+1 AC Power Redundancy
D. N+N AC Power Redundancy
Answer: A, D

Q: 20 Which menu
HP0-S16 study guide item is added to HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) when installing Extensions for HP SIM on Microsoft Windows?
A. OpenView GlancePlus
B. Altiris PC Transplant
C. Altiris Deployment Server connector
D. VMware VirtualCenter Management Server
Answer: A

Q: 2 Which Analysis graph details transaction response times as a function of load?
A. Transactions per Second
B. Average Transaction Response Time
C. Transaction Response Time Under Load
D. Transaction Response Time (distribution)
Answer: C

Q: 3 During analysis of a scenario, you realize that the throughput becomes flat as Vusers continue to increase. What is the likely cause?
A. a bandwidth problem
B. a database server problem
C. a web server connection problem
D. an application server connection problem
Answer: A

Q: 4 Which option in the Analysis tool allows you to see the results of two graphs from the same load test scenario in a single graph?
A. Drill Down
B. Apply Filter
C. Merge Graphs
D. Auto Correlate
Answer: C

Q: 5 Which Analysis graph shows the number of transactions against transaction response times?
A. Transactions per Second
B. Average Transaction Response Time
C. Transaction Response Time Under Load
D. Transaction Response Time (distribution)
Answer: D

Q: 6 In the Analysis tool, what allows you to modify the scale of the x-axis?
A. think time
B. granularity
C. event type
D. transaction hierarchical path
Answer: B

Q: 7 Which Analysis graph details the delay for the complete path between the source and destination machines?
A. MS IIS
B. Windows Resource
C. Network Delay Time
D. Time to First Buffer Breakdown
Answer: C

Q: 8 Click the Exhibit button.

Which type of graph does the image in the exhibit represent?
A. Merged graph
B. Drill Down graph
C. Cross Scenario graph
D. Auto Correlated graph
Answer: C

Q: 9 What does the elapsed time in the Scenario Status window refer to?
A. the time that has elapsed from when all Vusers have finished Initializing
B. the time that has elapsed from when all Vusers were in the running state
C. the time that has elapsed from when you press the start Scenario button
D. the time that has elapsed from when the first Vusers entered the running state
Answer: C

Q: 10 You configure a scenario to start with a delay of (HH:MM:SS) just before leaving from work. You return the next morning to find that the scenario did not run. Why would this happen?
A. You failed to save the scenario.
B. You failed to save the schedule.
C. You failed to connect to the load generators.
D. You failed to press the START SCENARIO button.
Answer: D

Q: 11 After the scenario execution, which LoadRunner component is responsible for collecting and organizing the performance data?
A. VuGen
B. Analysis
C. Controller
D. load generator
Answer: C

Q: 12 Where in the Run-time settings can you define to only send messages when an error occurs?
A. General: Log
B. General: Run Logic
C. General: Miscellaneous
D. General: Additional Attributes
Answer: A

Q: 13 You are running a test and notice that during the ramp up, the response times are beginning to drastically increase. How can you instruct LoadRunner to stop ramping up Vusers and hold the current number?
A. press the STOP button on the Controller’s main window
B. press the PAUSE button on the Interactive Schedule graph
C. select the option to wait for the current iteration to end before stopping
D. select the Vusers in the Ready state from the Vusers window and click the STOP button
Answer: B

Q: 14 Which scenario execution run allows you to verify the system performs as expected under load?
A. Debug
B. Full Load
C. Top Time
D. Scalability
Answer: B

Q: 15 When you specify to iterate a script 10 times, which sections of the script are iterated?
A. group
B. action
C. vuser_init
D. vuser_end
Answer: B

Q: 16 Where are the results stored during the run of a scenario?
A. Analysis
B. Controller
C. utility server
D. load generator
Answer: D

Q: 17 Click the Exhibit button.

What does the
HP0-M18 dumps image shown in the exhibit represent?
A. Thumbnail
B. Extended Log
C. Content Check
D. Snapshot on Error
Answer: D

Q: 18 When you define a rendezvous point in a scenario, where should the lr_start_transaction function be placed?
A. at the end of the action section
B. at the beginning of the action section
C. immediately after the rendezvous function
D. immediately before the rendezvous function
Answer: C

Q: 19 While analyzing the Vuser log files from a scenario run, you see the following log file from one of the Vusers.
Start auto log message stack – Iteration 1.
Starting action BookFlight.
BookFlight.c(5): Notify: Transaction WT_00_Home_Page started.
BookFlight.c(7): Error -27796: Failed to connect to server 27.0.0.1:1080 [10061]
End auto log message stack.
What was the Run-time setting, Logging option set to?
A. Standard Logging
B. Extended Logging
C. Always send a message
D. Send a message only when an error occurs
Answer: D

Q: 20 When scheduling by scenario, to which group(s) does the defined schedule apply?
A. all groups in the scenario
B. only the first group in the scenario
C. only the selected group in the scenario
D. only the selected group in the scenario scheduler
Answer: A

Q: 21 A script was recorded with an average think time for an advanced user. An advanced user pauses 5 seconds between clicks. A first-time user pauses an average of 10 seconds between clicks.
How can you modify the think time run-time settings to emulate a first-time user?
A. set the think time to s recorded
B. set the think time to multiply the recorded think time by 4
C. set the think time to a random percentage between 150% – 250%
D. set the think time to replay as recorded, but limit the think time to 10 seconds
Answer: C

Q: 22 How can you validate that the LoadRunner Agent is running on the load generator?
A. Port 443 will be open.
B. The MIFW.exe process will be running.
C. The radar dish will appear in the system tray.
D. The load generator will be pinged using the name/DNS/IP.
Answer: C

Q: 23 Which scenario execution run allows you to look for potential transactions that require significantly longer times to complete?
A. Debug
B. Full Load
C. Scalability
D. Top Time Transaction
Answer: D

Q: 24 Which scenario type allows you to add, start, and stop Vusers during a scenario run?
A. Manual
B. Session
C. Real-Life
D. Automated
E. User-Defined
F. Goal-Oriented
Answer: A

Q: 25 On which platform can the Controller be installed?
A. UNIX
B. Linux
C. Windows
D. Sun Solaris
Answer: C

Q: 26 Click the Exhibit button.

Which description describes the schedule shown in the exhibit?
A. The scenario is scheduled by scenario, consisting of two groups: one group with 10 Vusers, the other group with 15 Vusers. The duration action is set for 5 minutes.
B. The scenario is scheduled by group, consisting of two groups: one group with 10 Vusers, the other group with 15 Vusers. Each group has the ramp up set to 1 Vuser every 5 seconds.
C. The scenario is scheduled by group, consisting of two groups: one group with 10 Vusers, the other group with 15 Vusers. Each group has the duration action scheduled for 5 minutes.
D. The scenario is scheduled by scenario, consisting of one group. The ramp up is set to 2 Vusers every 20 seconds. Duration is set to 5 minutes, and ramp down is set to 5 Vusers every 30 seconds.
Answer: C

Q: 27 You are running a load test to simulate a call center. The representatives log in to the application in the morning, perform their business processes throughout the day, and log out before leaving at the end of the day. You notice that the login transaction is failing for some users and none of the users have started their business processes.
Which configuration is most likely defined for your scenario?
A. The login business process is in the vuser_init section, and the Vusers are defined to initialize all Vusers before running.
B. The login business process is in the vuser_init section, and the Vusers are defined to initialize 1 Vuser every 10 seconds.
C. The login business process is in the login action section, and the Vusers are defined to initialize all Vusers before running.
D. The login business process is in the login action section, and the Vusers are defined to initialize 1 Vuser every 10 seconds.
Answer: A

Q: 28 During a top time transaction run, what is the recommended load percentage?
A. 20%
B. 35%
C. 50%
D. 100%
Answer: A

Q: 29 You are testing an employee time entry system. The project manager has provided you with only 8 weeks to simulate users entering time. Which scenario run mode would you use to ensure that no more than 8 iterations occur?
A. Group
B. Scenario
C. Duration
D. Global Schedule
E. Real-Life Schedule
F. Run Until Complete
Answer: F

Q: 30 You want HP0-M18
to control the amount of delay that a Vuser pauses between executing steps. Where do you set this in the Run-time settings?
A. General: Pacing
B. General: Think Time
C. Network: Speed Simulation
D. Browser: Browser Emulation
Answer: B

Q: 2 Which command displays the World Wide Names of each host bus adapter (HBA)?
A. SHOW ALL
B. SHOW THIS
C. SHOW WWNS
D. SHOW ADAPTER
E. SHOW CONNECTIONS
Answer: E

Q: 3 What can be used to determine which model of the Emulex-based card (i.e., LP950 or LP9000) your system is using? (Select two.)
A. Windows Device Manager
B. Light Pulse Utility
C. Fibre Diagnostics Utility
D. BIOS of the Emulex-based host bus adapter (HBA)
Answer: B, D

Q: 4 Which utility will allow you to find the firmware revision number of hard drives? (Select three.)
A. MSA LCD
B. HP Insight Manager
C. Array Diagnostics Utility (ADU)
D. Array Configuration Utility (ACU)
E. Light Pulse Utility (LPUTILNT.exe)
Answer: B, C, D

Q: 5 What should you use to directly identify the active controller and the standby controller? (Select two.)
A. Array Configuration Utility (ACU)
B. Controller LCD
C. Array Diagnostics Utility (ADU)
D. LED No. 9 Status
Answer: B, D

Q: 6 With no path failure, what controls automatic path switching in an active/active MSA1500 controller configuration?
A. MSA controller firmware, not configurable
B. Fibre Channel I/O modules, not configurable
C. MSA controller firmware, user can set thresholds
D. Fibre Channel Fabric switches, user can set thresholds
Answer: C

Q: 7 Using the Command Line Interface, which command is used to add space to a specific LUN on an MSA1000?
A. SET UNIT
B. ADD UNIT
C. EXTEND UNIT
D. EXPAND UNIT
Answer: C

Q: 8 What is used to launch Secure Path Manager?
A. http://localhost:2381
B. http://localhost:7902
C. StorageWorks Command Console client
D. Secure Path Manager local program group
Answer: A

Q: 9 What are three purposes of ACL in an MSA1000/1500 cs Command Line Interface? (Select three.)
A. to disable access of logical drives to all connected servers
B. to allow spares to be associated with specific arrays
C. to allow access of logical drives to all connected servers
D. to prevent ISLs from fabric reconfiguration
E. to associate connections to logical drives
Answer: A, C, E

Q: 10 How can you obtain the management port IP address on an MSA1510i storage system?
A. from the OCP display on the controller
B. from the RESCAN button in the Storage Management Utility (SMU)
C. from the label on the circuit board of the Ethernet iSCSI I/O module
D. from the two rightmost digits of the controller’s serial number, added to “10.0.0.”
Answer: A

Q: 11 What is the path status of a path that is currently servicing or is capable of servicing I/O to a storageset?
A. active
B. alternate
C. available
D. preferred
Answer: A

Q: 12 What is the default username and password to access the Storage Management Utility (SMU) for the first time?
A. root; root
B. admin; admin
C. root; password
D. admin; -no password-
Answer: A

Q: 13 Which utilities are used to monitor and manage the MSA1000-supported Brocade switches? (Select two.)
A. FTP
B. Web-Based Tools
C. HP Systems Insight Manager
D. ACU
E. Telnet
Answer: B, E

Q: 14 According to best practices, what is the recommended status of the target before you modify ACLs? (Select two.)
A. active
B. inactive
C. standby
D. pending
E. disconnected
Answer: B, E

Q: 15 What happens if access control is disabled on an MSA1510i?
A. Only initiators without ACLs have access to any target.
B. Only initiators with an ACL have access to their targets.
C. All initiators with access to the controller can access the targets.
D. None of the initiators with access to the controller can access the targets.
Answer: C

Q: 16 How is the MSA1xxx storage system family positioned?
A. as a DAS solution with limited SAN capabilities
B. as a SAN solution with direct connect capabilities
C. as an entry level storage solution with controller based data replication capability
D. as a preconfigured solution with expansion capability to a mission critical enterprise solution
Answer: B

Q: 17 The Secure Path Agent communicates with which driver on a Windows 2000/2003 system?
A. RAIDISK.SYS
B. HSZDISK.SYS
C. HSXDISK.SYS
D. LP6NDS35.SYS
Answer: A

Q: 18 What information can be collected from an Array Diagnostic Utility (ADU) report? (Select three.)
A. problems that appear to be drive related
B. host bus adapter (HBA) errors
C. immediate hard read/write errors
D. Fibre Channel
HP0-J23 dumps timeout errors
E. approaching prefailure and failure conditions
Answer: A, C, E

Q: 19 You are attaching MSA30 enclosures to an MSA1500 cs with all SCSI modules installed. On which bus and port should they be attached?
A. bus 0 port A, bus 1 port A, bus 2 port A and bus 3 port A
B. bus 0 port A, bus 1 port B, bus 2 port A and bus 3 port B
C. bus 0 port B, bus 1 port A, bus 2 port B and bus 3 port A
D. bus 0 port B, bus 1 port B, bus 2 port B and bus 3 port B
Answer: A

Q: 20 Which Windows OS multipathing software is supported on an MSA1510i storage system?
A. QLogic failover driver
B. Secure Path for iSCSI
C. iSCSI protocol embedded function
D. Multipath Input/Output (MPIO)
Answer: D

Q: 21 What information is provided by the status LED located on the SCSI I/O module on a MSA1500?
A. activity on the bus
B. Module power is off
C. Module power is on
D. Fibre Channel distance
Answer: C

Q: 22 What is the general positioning of the Modular Smart Array (MSA1xxx) storage systems?
A. entry-level storage systems for a maximum of 8TB
B. entry-level storage systems based on EVA technology
C. entry-level to mid-range storage systems for SAN environments
D. mid-range RAID array storage systems with snapshot capabilities
Answer: C

Q: 23 A customer wants to implement an MSA1000 solution. What are three supported inter-connect options? (Select three.)
A. Hub 12
B. MSA Hub 2/3
C. FC-AL Switch
D. SAN Switch 2/8
E. HP SAN Switch Family
Answer: B, D, E

Q: 24 What is a benefit of having the array accelerator mounted on a removable DIMM in the MSA1000 controller?
A. allows easy removal for firmware updates on another controller
B. allows upgrade of cache memory on the existing accelerator module
C. allows stored data to be moved to another controller if the original controller fails
D. allows easy access for the removal and replacement of the accelerator battery
Answer: C

Q: 25 What is the purpose of the EMU I/O port module in the MSA1000? (Select three.)
A. provides drive status indicators
B. provides expansion ports for both SCSI and SATA enclosures
C. provides expansion ports for external SCSI enclosures
D. controls inter-controller internal communication
E. monitors temperatures, power supplies and blowers
Answer: A, C, E

Q: 26 What is the function of the second Ethernet iSCSI I/O module in MSA1510i storage systems?
A. It provides a dedicated port for data replication.
B. It allows more hosts to connect to the storage system.
C. It provides redundancy in a dual controller configuration.
D. It improves network performance with teaming technology.
Answer: C

Q: 27 What are three features of the MSA1000 controller? (Select three.)
A. zoning
B. path failover
C. online spares
D. capacity expansion
E. selective storage presentation
Answer: C, D, E

Q: 28 Which statement correctly describes DAS-to-SAN (DtS) migration?
A. Drives and data can easily be migrated to a SAN in hours.
B. Drives and data can easily be migrated to a SAN in minutes.
C. Drives and data can easily be migrated from DAS to a SAN, or from a SAN to DAS in hours.
D. Drives and data can easily be migrated from DAS to a SAN, or from a SAN to DAS in minutes.
Answer: B

Q: 29 What is a characteristic of a Fibre Channel loop topology?
A. optimized for copper interconnections
B. no dedicated interconnect device required
C. dedicated
HP0-J23 study guide use as disk shelf interconnection
D. security implemented by the private/public loop option
Answer: B

Q: 30 Click the Task button.

Categorize the Secure Path and Secure Path Manager features.
Answer: